Barkley POST Entrance Exam 2026 - Real Exam-Style Practice Questions (100 Qs) with Verified Rationales 1. A 62-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with new onset proteinuria. Which medication is most appropriate? A. Thiazide diuretic B. ACE inhibitor C. Beta-blocker D. Calcium channel blocker Answer: B Big Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and slow progression of kidney disease, especially in patients with proteinuria. This renal-protective effect makes them first-line. 2. A patient presents with sudden onset unilateral weakness and slurred speech. What is the FIRST diagnostic test? A. MRI brain B. CT brain without contrast C. CT angiogram D. Carotid ultrasound Answer: B Big Rationale: Non-contrast CT rapidly distinguishes ischemic vs hemorrhagic stroke, which determines immediate management.3. A 54-year-old smoker presents with painless hematuria. Most concerning diagnosis? A. UTI B. Kidney stone C. Bladder cancer D. BPH Answer: C Big Rationale: Painless hematuria in adults is urothelial cancer until proven otherwise, especially in smokers. 4. A patient with diabetes has numbness and burning in both feet. Best initial treatment? A. NSAIDs B. Opioids C. Gabapentin D. Acetaminophen Answer: C Big Rationale: Diabetic peripheral neuropathy responds best to neuropathic agents, not standard analgesics. 5.Which symptom is most concerning in an