UPDATED EXAM :P | [SC:OOL] ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY TEST BANK EXAM 1 UPDATED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS GRADED A+ LATEST VERSION 2024 -2025 COMPLETE DOCUMENT FOR STUDY AND EXAM PREPARATION NEWEST!!! A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as a. dysplasia. b. pathologic dysplasia. c. hyperplasia. d. pathologic hyperplasia. Because the changes are due to an imbalance, they would be considered pathologic hyperplasia, a term more descriptive than simple hyperplasia. The endometrial changes were not abnormal in size and shape; thus, it is not dysplasia regardless of cause.UPDATED EXAM :P | [SC:OOL] The correct answer is: pathologic hyperplasia. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process? a. adaptation b. calcification c. apoptosis d. necrosis Necrosis is the sum of cellular changes after local cell death. Cellular adaptation is a reversible, structural, or functional response to both normal or physiologic conditions and adverse or pathologic conditions. Calcification is an accumulation of calcium salts. Apoptosis is an