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A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurse's management of the patient's care? A) There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma. B) Infection is the most likely cause of the patient's change in health status. C) The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia. D) The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma. {Ans: Ans: B Feedback: Leukocytosis is most often the result of infection. It is only considered pathologic (and suggestive of leukemia) if it is persistent and extreme. Multiple myeloma and lymphoma are not likely causes of this constellation of symptoms.}A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what? A) AML B) CML C) MDS D) ALL {Ans: Ans: D Feedback: In acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), manifestations of leukemic cell infiltration into other organs are more common than with other forms