A 37-year-old woman presents to the clinic a few days after being sexually assaulted and has concerns about contracting HIV from her assailant. She has no significant medical history and has never had a sexually transmitted infection. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her physical examination is unremarkable as well. Which of the following is the recommended empiric therapy against sexually transmitted infections, excluding HIV and hepatitis B in this case? {Ans: Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM, doxycycline 100 mg PO twice a day for seven days, and metronidazole or tinidazole 2 g PO}A 23-year-old male presents with penile discharge for three days. He also reports urinary urgency and cloudy urine. When asked about his sexual history, the patient reports that he was recently sexually assaulted but did not report the assault. He worried that his girlfriend would not understand and think he had cheated on her. He has no past medical history. His vitals indicate a temperature of 100.1 F (37.8 C), a pulse of 75 beats per minute, blood pressure of 115/77 mmHg, and 16 respirations per minute. On physical examination, there is discharge at the urethral meatus that is collected for analysis. The specimen is viewed