According to the genitourinary presentation, the number 1 risk factor for urinary incontinence is: {Ans: aging}A patient has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Three days later he returns with complaints of nausea and stomach cramping. Ho should the nurse practitioner respond? {Ans: Reassure the patient that this is an anticipated side effect.}The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finastreride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects? {Ans: Ejaculatory dysfunction}What is a sign of insulin resistance that can present in African American patients? {Ans: Acanthosis Nigricans}Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with minimal symptoms of BPH {Ans: watchful waiting}Acanthosis nigricans is associated with all of the following conditions except: {Ans: tinea versicolor}